itku2er Posted July 18, 2008 Posted July 18, 2008 Well, might as well give the rest of the story... About this point, you, being a n00b, finally exercise a bit of lateral thinking (half an our too late) and take the pts b/p on both arms and find it to be 110/90 non the right and 90/70 on the left. A bit more lateral thinking and you finally remember that cannula's are not for arms only and quite easily slot an 18g in her right ankle and give her 2 doses of 2.5mg of morph and she settles down quite well. This is, as some of you have mentioned, a AAA. The theory is that the abdo pain for 2 weeks is from the AAA, with the paracetmol being used for her "tummy ache" and also causing the jaundice such as itku2er suggested. Interesting note that after arrival at A&E, she passed a bowel movement, her abdoman went soft again revealing a nice pulsing mass. And just to cap it off she had ST elevation in V3 and V4 and troponins of .16 :? Im glad some of you guys have suggested that there is not much you can do with this in the field, i have beating myself up a bit over this - especially with the pain control, anything else you guys would have done assessment wise?? Good senerio BUSHY I honestly wasnt thinking AAA. Can't wait till your next one!
firedoc5 Posted July 18, 2008 Posted July 18, 2008 I thought about AAA but thought, naw, couldn't be. But good for you. Good thinking of the IV site. Her legs must have been better than I thought at her age.
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